Volver a Módulos

Private Pilot Test Prep

 

English - Questions and Answers

1. Basic Aerodynamics.

2. Aircraft Systems.

3. Flight Instruments.

4. Regulations.

5. Procedures and Airport Operations.

6. Weather.

7. Weather Services.

8. Aircraft Performance.

9. Enroute Flight.

10. Navegation.

11. Comunication Procedures.

Español - Preguntas y Respuestas

1. Aerodinámica Básica.

2. Sistemas del Avión.

3. Instrumentos de vuelo.

4. Regulaciones.

5. Procedimientos y operación de aeropuertos.

6. Meteorología.

7. Servicios Meteorológicos.

8. Rendimiento del Avión.

9. Vuelo en Ruta.

10. Navegación.

11. Procedimientos de Comunicaciones.

Basic Aerodynamics Test

 

Oral Test

  1. List the parts of an Airfoil

  2. What is relative wind?

  3. What is angle of incidence?

  4. What is the angle of attack?

  5. What is the diedral angle and what is its function?

  6. What are the three imaginary axes around which an aircraft moves?

  7. What are the three movements of the aircraft around the imaginary axes?

  8. How do you make the movements of the aircraft around the imaginary axes?

  9. What are the four forces that act in flight? explain them.

  10. What is Lift and how is it produced?

  11. What are the types of Drag? explain them.

  12. What is Stability?

  13. What are the types of positive dynamic stability? explain them.

  14. What is center of gravity?

  15. What is center of gravity limits?

  16. When turning, lift breaks down into two forces, what are they?

  17. What is the load factor and what is it equivalent to in straight and level flight?

  18. Does the Bank angle of one turn increase the load factor?

  19. Does the amount of excess load that can be imposed on an airplane wing depend on the airplane's speed?

  20. Will an increased load factor (weight) cause an airplane to stop at a lower airspeed?

Written Test

1. Refer to (Fig.2)  If an airplane weighs 2,300 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 60° banked turn while maintaining altitude?

  • A- 2,300 pounds.

  • B- 3,400 pounds.

  • C- 4,600 pounds.

2. (Refer to Figure 2.) If an airplane weighs 4,500 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 45° banked turn while maintaining altitude?

  • A- 4,500 pounds.

  • B- 6,750 pounds.

  • C- 7,200 pounds.

3. (Refer to Figure 2.) If an airplane weighs 3,300 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 30° banked turn while maintaining altitude?

  • A- 1,200 pounds.

  • B- 3,100 pounds.

  • C- 3,960 pounds.

ExBA Fig2.png

Fig 02.

4. The angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the relative wind is known as the angle of:

  • A- Lift

  • B- Attack

  • C- Incidence

5. (Refer to Figure 1.) The acute angle A is the angle of:

  • A- Incidence

  • B- Attack

  • C- Diedral

6. (Refer to Figure 1.) The acute angle B is the angle of:

  • A- Incidence

  • B- Attack

  • C- Diedral

ExBA Fig1.png

Fig 01.

7. The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls Will

  • A- Increase if the CG is moved forward.

  • B- Change with an increase in gross weight.

  • C- Remain the same regardless of gross weight.

8. Which basic flight maneuver increases the load factor on an airplane as compared to straight-and-level flight?

  • A- Climbs.

  • B- Turns.

  • C- Stalls.

9. (Refer to figure 66.) While practicing S-turns, a consistently smaller half-circle is made on one side of the road than on the other, and this turn is not completed before crossing the road or reference line. This would most likely occur in turn:

  • A- 1-2-3 because the bank is decreased too rapidly during the latter part of the turn

  • B- 4-5-6 because the bank is increased too rapidly during the early part of the turn.

  • C- 4-5-6 because the bank is increased too slowly during the latter part of the turn.

ExBA Fig66.png

Fig 66.

10. Select the four flight fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft.

  • A- Aircraft power, pitch, bank, and trim..

  • B- Starting, taxiing, takeoff, and landing.

  • C- Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents.

11. When are the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium?

  • A- During unaccelerated flight.

  • B- When the aircraft is accelerating.

  • C- When the aircraft is at rest on the ground.

12. During a spin to the left, which wing(s) is/are stalled?

  • A- Both wings are stalled.

  • B- Neither wing is stalled.

  • C- Only the left wing is stalled.

13. (Refer to figure 62.) In flying the rectangular course, when would the aircraft be turned less than 90°?

  • A- Corners 1 and 4.

  • B- Corners 1 and 2.

  • C- Corners 2 and 4.

ExBA Fig62.png

Fig 62.

14. During an approach to a stall, an increased load factor will cause the airplane to

  • A- Stall at a higher airspeed.

  • B- Have a tendency to spin.

  • C- Be more difficult to control.

15. Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be

  • A- Less stable at all speeds.

  • B- Less stable at slow speeds, but more stable at high speeds.

  • C- Less stable at high speeds, but more stable at low speeds.

16. What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane?

  • A- The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift.

  • B- The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder, and rudder trim tab.

  • C- The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag.

17. What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane?

  • A- To control yaw.

  • B- To control overbanking tendency.

  • C- To control roll.

18. What force makes an airplane turn?

  • A- The horizontal component of lift.

  • B- The vertical component of lift.

  • C- Centrifugal force.

19. Which statement relates to Bernoulli`s principle?

  • A- For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

  • B- An additional upward force is generated as the lower surface of the wing deflects air downward.

  • C- Air traveling faster over the curved upper surface of an airfoil causes lower pressure on the top surface.

20. What is the purpose of the aileron on an airplane?

  • A- To control yaw.

  • B- To control overbanking tendency.

  • C- To control roll.

21. The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends upon the

  • A- Position of the CG.

  • B- Speed of the airplane.

  • C- Abruptness at which the load is applied.

22. An airplane has been loaded in such a manner that the CG is located aft of the aft CG limit. One undesirable flight characteristic a pilot might experience with this airplane would be

  • A- A longer takeoff run.

  • B- Difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition.

  • C- Stalling at higher-than-normal airspeed.

23. An airplane said to be inherently stable Will

  • A- Be difficult to stall.

  • B- Require less effort to control.

  • C- Not spin.

24. Changes in the center of pressure of a wing affect the aircraft`s

  • A- Lift/drag ratio.

  • B- Lifting capacity.

  • C- Aerodynamic balance and controllability.

25. What is the relationship of lift, drag, thrust, and weight when the airplane is in straight-and-level flight?

  • A- Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag.

  • B- Lift, drag, and weight equal thrust.

  • C- Lift and weight equal thrust and drag.

26. In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin?

  • A- Partially stalled with one wing low.

  • B- In a steep diving spiral.

  • C- Stalled.

27. When executing an emergency approach to land in a single-engine airplane, it is important to maintain a constant glide speed because variations in glide Speed

  • A- Increase the chances of shock cooling the engine.

  • B- Assure the proper descent angle is maintained until entering the flare.

  • C- Nullify all attempts at accuracy in judgment of gliding distance and landing spot.

28. If an emergency situation requires a downwind landing, pilots should expect a faster

  • A- Airspeed at touchdown, a longer ground roll, and better control throughout the landing roll.

  • B- Groundspeed at touchdown, a longer ground roll, and the likelihood of overshooting the desired touchdown point.

  • C- Groundspeed at touchdown, a shorter ground roll, and the likelihood of undershooting the desired touchdown point.

29. What is one purpose of wing flaps?

  • A- To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed.

  • B- To relieve the pilot of maintaining continuous pressure on the controls.

  • C- To decrease wing area to vary the lift.

30. One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to

  • A- Decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.

  • B- Permit a touchdown at a higher indicated airspeed.

  • C- Increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.

31. As altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls in a particular configuration Will

  • A- Decrease as the true airspeed decreases.

  • B- Decrease as the true airspeed increases.

  • C- Remain the same regardless of altitude.

32. What is ground effect?

  • A- The result of the interference of the surface of the Earth with the airflow patterns about an airplane.

  • B- The result of an alteration in airflow patterns increasing induced drag about the wings of an airplane.

  • C- The result of the disruption of the airflow patterns about the wings of an airplane to the point where the wings will no longer support the airplane in flight.

33. What must a pilot be aware of as a result of ground effect?

  • A- Wingtip vortices increase creating wake turbulence problems for arriving and departing aircraft.

  • B- Induced drag decreases; therefore, any excess speed at the point of flare may cause considerable floating.

  • C- A full stall landing will require less up elevator deflection than would a full stall when done free of ground effect.

34. Floating caused by the phenomenon of ground effect will be most realized during an approach to land when at

  • A- Less than the length of the wingspan above the surface.

  • B- Twice the length of the wingspan above the surface.

  • C- A higher-than-normal angle of attack.

35. Ground effect is most likely to result in which problem?

  • A- Settling to the surface abruptly during landing.

  • B- Becoming airborne before reaching recommended takeoff speed.

  • C- Inability to get airborne even though airspeed is sufficient for normal takeoff needs.

36. What causes an airplane (except a T-tail) to pitch nosedown when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted?

  • A- The CG shifts forward when thrust and drag are reduced.

  • B- The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced.

  • C- When thrust is reduced to less than weight, lift is also reduced and the wings can no longer support the weight.

37. Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is

  • A- Operating at high airspeeds.

  • B- Heavily loaded..

  • C- Developing lift.

38. The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is

  • A- Light, dirty, and fast.

  • B- Heavy, dirty, and fast.

  • C- Heavy, clean, and slow.

39. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to:

  • A- Sink below the aircraft generating turbulence.

  • B- Rise into the traffic pattern.

  • C- Rise into the takeoff or landing path of a crossing runway.

40. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?

  • A- Inward, upward, and around each tip.

  • B- Inward, upward, and counterclockwise.

  • C- Outward, upward, and around each tip.

41. When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to:

  • A- Rise from a crossing runway into the takeoff or landing path.

  • B- Rise into the traffic pattern area surrounding the airport.

  • C- Sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence.

42. When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft

  • A- Below and downwind from the heavy aircraft.

  • B- Above and upwind from the heavy aircraft.

  • C- Below and upwind from the heavy aircraft.

43. When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance?

  • A- Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown.

  • B- Stay below and to one side of its final approach flightpath.

  • C- Stay well below its final approach flightpath and land at least 2,000 feet behind.

44. When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying

  • A- Above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft's touchdown point.

  • B- Below the large aircraft's final approach path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point.

  • C- Above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point.

45. The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a

  • A- Light, quartering headwind.

  • B- Light, quartering tailwind.

  • C- Strong headwind.

WRITTEN TEST ANSWERS

1. C- 4,600 Pounds.

2. B- 6.750 Pounds.

3. C- 3.960 Pounds.

4. B- Attack.

5. B- Attack.

6. A- Incidence.

7. C- Remain the same regardless of gross weight.

8. B- Turns.

9. B- 4-5-6 because the bank is increased too rapidly during the early part of the turn.

10. C- Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents.

11. A- During unaccelerated flight.

12. A- Both wings are stalled.

13. A- Corners 1 and 4.

14. A- Stall at a higher airspeed.

15. A- Less stable at all speeds.

16. A- The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift.

17. A- To control yaw.

18. A- The horizontal component of lift.

19. C- Air traveling faster over the curved upper surface of an airfoil causes lower pressure on the top surface.

20. A- To control Roll.

21. B- Speed of the airplane.

22. B- Difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition.

23. B- Require less effort to control.

24. C- Aerodynamic balance and controllability.

25. A- Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag.

26. C- Stalled.

27. C- Nullify all attempts at accuracy in judgment of gliding distance and landing spot.

28. B-Groundspeed at touchdown, a longer ground roll, and the likelihood of overshooting the desired touchdown point.

29. A- To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed.

30. C- Increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.

31. C- Remain the same regardless of altitude.

32. A- The result of the interference of the surface of the Earth with the airflow patterns about an airplane.

33. B- Induced drag decreases; therefore, any excess speed at the point of flare may cause considerable floating.

34. A- Less than the length of the wingspan above the surface.

35. B- Becoming airborne before reaching recommended takeoff speed.

36. A- The CG shifts forward when thrust and drag are reduced.

37. C- Developing lift.

38. C- Heavy, clean, and slow.

39. A- Sink below the aircraft generating turbulence.

40. C- Outward, upward, and around each tip.

41. C- Sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence.

42. B- Above and upwind from the heavy aircraft.

43. A- Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown.

44. A- Above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft's touchdown point.

45. B- Light, quartering tailwind.

Aircraft Systems

 

Oral Test

  1. What are the four strokes of a reciprocating engine?

  2. What happens inside the cylinder in each of the four strokes?

  3. What sources of electrical energy does the aircraft have?

  4. What is the function of magneto?

  5. How many magnetos does the plane have?

  6. If one of the magnetos fails when testing, can the aircraft be flown?

  7. What is the function of the carburetor?

  8. Does the density of the air affect the work of the carburetor? why?

  9. When descending what happens to the fuel air mixture in the carburetor? How can the pilot correct it?

  10. When ascending what happens to the fuel air mixture in the carburetor? How can the pilot correct it?

  11. Why is ice forming on the carburetor?

  12. In what humidity and temperature conditions can ice form on the carburetor?

  13. How do you remove ice from the carburetor?

  14. How does icing on the carburetor affect an aircraft with a fixed pitch propeller?

  15. Fuel has two functions in the engine, what are they?

  16. What kind of fuel should be used in the plane?

  17. If the type of fuel required is not available, can a higher grade or lower grade fuel be used? why?

  18. What causes the use of a lower grade fuel?

  19. What is preignition?

  20. What is detonation?

  21. What types of contamination can be present in fuel? Explain them

  22. What types of fuel pumps are used in aircraft and what is their function?

  23. What are the two functions of motor lubricating oil?

  24. List two reasons why high engine temperatures can occur?

  25. What should the pilot do if there is a high temperature in the engine in flight?

  26. What is the function of the propeller?

  27. What is a constant speed propeller?

  28. What is a fixed pitch propeller?

  29. What is the torque produced by the propeller?

  30. What is the spiraling slipstream produced by the propeller?

  31. What is the gyroscopic precession produced by the propeller?

  32. What is the P-factor produced by the propeller?

  33. What is the preflight inspection?

  34. What is the written checklist?

  35. Whose responsibility is it to keep an aircraft in an airworthy condition?

  36. Who is responsible for determining if that aircraft is in safe flight condition?

Written Test

1. What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating?

  • A- Enrichen the fuel mixture.

  • B- Increase the RPM.

  • C- Reduce the airspeed.

2. Applying carburetor heat will

  • A- Result in more air going through the carburetor.

  • B- Enrich the fuel/air mixture.

  • C- Not affect the fuel/air mixture.

3. Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges?

  • A- Using fuel that has a lower-than-specified fuel rating.

  • B- Using fuel that has a higher-than-specified fuel rating.

  • C- Operating with higher-than-normal oil pressure.

4. An electrical system failure (battery and alternator) occurs during flight. In this situation, you would

  • A- Experience avionics equipment failure.

  • B- Probably experience failure of the engine ignition system, fuel gauges, aircraft lighting system, and avionics equipment.

  • C- Probably experience engine failure due to the loss of the engine-driven fuel pump and also experience failure of the radio equipment, lights, and all instruments that require alternating current.

5. An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by

  • A- Operating with a too high viscosity oil.

  • B- The oil level being too low.

  • C- Operating with an excessively rich mixture.

6. If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause

  • A- A mixture of fuel and air that is not uniform in all cylinders.

  • B- Lower cylinder head temperatures.

  • C- Detonation.

7. For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on

  • A- A properly functioning thermostat.

  • B- Air flowing over the exhaust manifold.

  • C- The circulation of lubricating oil.

8. If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be

  • A- Increase of RPM.

  • B- Engine roughness.

  • C- Loss of RPM.

9. A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller is to

  • A- Avoid high RPM settings with high manifold pressure.

  • B- Avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM.

  • C- Always use a rich mixture with high RPM settings.

10. If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during climb-out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to

  • A- Lean the mixture.

  • B- Lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed..

  • C- Apply carburetor heat.

11. In what flight condition are torque effects more pronounced in a single-engine airplane?

  • A- Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.

  • B- Low airspeed, low power, low angle of attack.

  • C- High airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.

12. To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the

  • A- Fuel strainer drain.

  • B- Lowest point in the fuel system.

  • C- Fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps.

13. What type fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available?

  • A- The next higher octane aviation gas.

  • B- The next lower octane aviation gas.

  • C- Unleaded automotive gas of the same octane rating.

14. What is one purpose for using reciprocating engines?

  • A- Better distribution of heat.

  • B- To preserve cylinder head duration and maintain lower temperatures.

  • C- They are relatively simple and inexpensive to operate.

15. Carburetor icing can occur with an OAT as high as

  • A- 100° F and visible moisture.

  • B- 20° C and high relative humidity.

  • C- 75° F and low relative humidity.

16. If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with

  • A- The mixture set too rich.

  • B- Higher-than-normal oil pressure.

  • C- Too much power and with the mixture set too lean.

17. The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as

  • A- Combustion.

  • B- Pre-ignition.

  • C- Detonation.

18. The operating principle of float-type carburetors is based on the

  • A- Automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitude.

  • B- Difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet.

  • C- increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing an increase in air pressure.

19. With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be

  • A- More susceptible to icing.

  • B- Equally susceptible to icing.

  • C- Less susceptible to icing.

20. Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to

  • A- Decrease engine performance.

  • B- Increase engine performance.

  • C- Have no effect on engine performance.

21. When does P-factor cause the airplane to yaw to the left?

  • A- When at low angles of attack.

  • B- When at high angles of attack.

  • C- When at high airspeeds.

22. What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?

  • A- Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.

  • B- Place the magneto or ignition switch momentarily in the OFF position to check for proper grounding.

  • C- Test each brake and the parking brake.

23. Excessively high engine temperatures, either in the air or on the ground, will

  • A- Increase fuel consumption and may increase power due to the increased heat.

  • B- Result in damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of cylinder cooling fans.

  • C- Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.

24. Detonation may occur at high-power settings when

  • A- The fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly.

  • B- An excessively rich fuel mixture causes an explosive gain in power.

  • C- The fuel mixture is ignited too early by hot carbon deposits in the cylinder.

25. Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will

  • A- Force any existing water to the top of the tank away from the fuel lines to the engine.

  • B- Prevent expansion of the fuel by eliminating airspace in the tanks.

  • C- Prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.

26. Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing?

  • A- Any temperature below freezing and a relative humidity of less than 50 percent.

  • B- Temperature between 32 and 50°F and low humidity

  • C- Temperature between 20 and 70°F and high humidity.

27. How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller?

  • A- The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM.

  • B- The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates a constant blade angle.

  • C- The throttle controls engine RPM as registered on the tachometer and the mixture control regulates the power output.

28. The possibility of carburetor icing exists even when the ambient air temperature is as

  • A- High as 70°F and the relative humidity is high.

  • B- High as 95°F and there is visible moisture.

  • C- Low as 0°F and the relative humidity is high.

29. What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carburetor heat is applied?

  • A- A decrease in RPM results from the lean mixture.

  • B- The fuel/air mixture becomes richer.

  • C- The fuel/air mixture becomes leaner.Low as 0°F and the relative humidity is high.

30. The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to

  • A- Decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for increased air density.

  • B- Decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.

  • C- Increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density of the air.

31. During the run-up at a high-elevation airport, a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat check. Under these circumstances, what would be the most logical initial action?

  • A- Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture.

  • B- Taxi back to the flight line for a maintenance check.

  • C- Reduce manifold pressure to control detonation.

32. How should an aircraft preflight inspection be accomplished for the first flight of the day?

  • A- Quick walk around with a check of gas and oil.

  • B- Thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer.

  • C- Any sequence as determined by the pilot-in-command.

33. While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?

  • A- The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.

  • B- There will be more fuel in the cylinders than is needed for normal combustion, and the excess fuel will absorb heat and cool the engine.

  • C- The fuel/air mixture may become excessively Rich.

34. Excessively high engine temperatures will

  • A- Cause damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of the cylinder cooling fins.

  • B- Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.

  • C- Not appreciably affect an aircraft engine.

35. One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for

  • A- Improved engine performance.

  • B- Uniform heat distribution.

  • C- Balanced cylinder head pressure.

36. Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when

  • A- The spark plugs are fouled or shorted out or the wiring is defective.

  • B- Hot spots in the combustion chamber ignite the fuel/air mixture in advance of normal ignition.

  • C- The unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally.

37. What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller?

  • A- Permits the pilot to select and maintain a desired cruising speed.

  • B- Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance.

  • C- Provides a smoother operation with stable RPM and eliminates vibrations.

38. If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, the most noticeable result will be that the engine

  • A- Will run very rough.

  • B- Cannot be started with the switch in the ON position.

  • C- Cannot be shut down by turning the switch to the OFF position.

39. The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by P-factor is the result of the

  • A- Clockwise rotation of the engine and the propeller turning the airplane counter-clockwise.

  • B- Propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left.

  • C- Gyroscopic forces applied to the rotating propeller blades acting 90° in advance of the point the force was applied.

40. What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb?

  • A- Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.

  • B- Reduce climb speed and increase RPM.

  • C- Increase climb speed and increase RPM.

41. Should it become necessary to handprop an airplane engine, it is extremely important that a competent pilot

  • A- Call 'contact' before touching the propeller.

  • B- Be at the controls in the cockpit.

  • C- Be in the cockpit and call out all commands.

42. The most important rule to remember in the event of a power failure after becoming airborne is to

  • A- Immediately establish the proper gliding attitude and airspeed.

  • B- Quickly check the fuel supply for possible fuel exhaustion.

  • C- Determine the wind direction to plan for the forced landing.

43. Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in airworthy condition?

  • A- Pilot-in-command.

  • B- Owner or operator.

  • C- Mechanic.

44. On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, when is the auxiliary electric driven pump used?

  • A- All the time to aid the engine-driven fuel pump.

  • B- In the event engine-driven fuel pump fails.

  • C- Constantly except in starting the engine.

45. During the preflight inspection who is responsible for determining the aircraft is safe for flight?

  • A- The pilot in command.

  • B- The owner or operator.

  • C- The certificated mechanic who performed the annual inspection.

46. The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting

  • A- An increase in RPM and then a gradual decrease in RPM.

  • B- A decrease in RPM and then a constant RPM indication.

  • C- A decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.

WRITTEN TEST ANSWERS

1. A- Enrichen the fuel mixture.

2. B- Enrich the fuel/air mixture.

3. A- Using fuel that has a lower-than-specified fuel rating.

4. A- Experience avionics equipment failure.

5. B- The oil level being too low.

6. C- Detonation.

7. C- The circulation of lubricating oil.

8. C- Loss of RPM.

9. B- Avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM.

10. B- Lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed.

11. A- Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.

12. C- Fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps.

13. A- The next higher octane aviation gas.

14. C- They are relatively simple and inexpensive to operate.

15. B- 20° C and high relative humidity.

16. C- Too much power and with the mixture set too lean.

17. B- Pre-ignition.

18. B- Difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet.

19. A- More susceptible to icing.

20. A- Decrease engine performance.

21. B- When at high angles of attack.

22. A- Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.

23. C- Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.

24. A- The fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly.

25. C- Prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.

26. C- Temperature between 20 and 70°F and high humidity.

27. A- The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM.

28. A- High as 70°F and the relative humidity is high.

29. B- The fuel/air mixture becomes richer.

30. B- Decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.

31. A- Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture.

32. B- Thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer.

33. A- The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.

34. B- Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.

35. A- Improved engine performance.

36. C- The unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally.

37. B- Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance.

38. C- Cannot be shut down by turning the switch to the OFF position.

39. B- Propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left.

40. A- Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.

41. B- Be at the controls in the cockpit.

42. A- Immediately establish the proper gliding attitude and airspeed.

43. B- Owner or operator.

44. B- In the event engine-driven fuel pump fails.

45. A- The pilot in command.

46. C- A decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.

Flight Instruments

Oral Test

 
  1. List the six flight instruments.

  2. What instruments work with the Pitostatic system?

  3. What instruments work with the gyroscopic system?

  4. With what pressures does airspeed work?

  5. What pressures does the altimeter work?

  6. With what pressures does turn coordinator work?

  7. What physical phenomena act in gyroscopes?

  8. What gyroscopic instruments works with vacuum generated suction?

  9. What gyroscopic instruments work with electricity?

  10. What is a Slip turn?

  11. What is a Skid turn?

  12. In the magnetic compass what is deviation?

  13. In the magnetic compass what is variation?

  14. What is magnetic heading?

  15. What is true heading?

  16. With what type of pressures does the pitostatic system work?

  17. If the pitot tube is clogged, what instruments would not work properly?

  18. If the static pressure vent is blocked, what instruments will not work properly?

  19. What is IAS?

  20. What is CAS?

  21. What is TAS?

  22. What is VSO? How is it represented in airspeed?

  23. What is VFE? How is it represented in airspeed?

  24. What is VS1? How is it represented in airspeed?

  25. What is VNO? How is it represented in airspeed?

  26. What is VNE? How is it represented in airspeed?

  27. What is VLE?

  28. What is VA?

  29. What is VY?

  30. What is VX?

  31. What is altitude?

  32. What is indicated altitude?

  33. What is absolute altitude?

  34. What is true altitude?

  35. What is pressure altitude?

  36. What is density altitude?

  37. When is the pressure setting 29.92"Hg used in the altimeter?

  38. What is transition altitude, transition level and transition layer?

  39. What are semicircular levels in aviation?

  40. What is the difference between the altitude that must be maintained in VFR with respect to IFR?

Written Test

1. What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators?

  • A- Never-exceed speed.

  • B- Maximum structural cruising speed.

  • C- Maneuvering speed.

2. VSO is defined as the:

  • A- Stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration.

  • B- Stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration.

  • C- Stalling speed or minimum takeoff safety speed.

3. VNO is defined as the:

  • A- Normal operating range.

  • B- Never-exceed speed.

  • C- Maximum structural cruising speed.

4. Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude?

  • A- If the altimeter has no mechanical error.

  • B- When at sea level under standard conditions.

  • C- When at 18,000 feet MSL with the altimeter set at 29.92.

5. During flight, when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate?

  • A- Only in straight-and-level unaccelerated flight.

  • B- As long as the airspeed is constant.

  • C- During turns if the bank does not exceed 18°.

6. What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

  • A- The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left.

  • B- The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.

  • C- The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the airplane.

7. What is absolute altitude?

  • A- The altitude read directly from the altimeter.

  • B- The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.

  • C- The height above the standard datum plane.

8. Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude?

  • A- In colder than standard air temperature.

  • B- In warmer than standard air temperature.

  • C- When density altitude is higher than indicated altitude.

9. Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude?

  • A- Air temperature lower than standard.

  • B- Atmospheric pressure lower than standard.

  • C- Air temperature warmer than standard.

10. Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed?

  • A- VA

  • B- VLO

  • C- VNE

11. If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of lower pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate:

  • A- Lower than the actual altitude above sea level.

  • B- Higher than the actual altitude above sea level.

  • C- The actual altitude above sea level.

12. If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected?

  • A- The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator.

  • B- The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.

  • C- The altimeter, attitude indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator.

13. If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate:

  • A- The actual altitude above sea level.

  • B- Higher than the actual altitude above sea level.

  • C- Lower than the actual altitude above sea level.

14. If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter?

  • A- The elevation of the nearest airport corrected to mean sea level.

  • B- The elevation of the departure area.

  • C- Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.

15. Deviation error of the magnetic compass is caused by:

  • A- A northerly turning error.

  • B- Certain metals and electrical systems within the aircraft.

  • C- The difference in location of true north and magnetic north.

16. What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?

  • A- Maneuvering speed.

  • B- Turbulent or rough-air speed.

  • C- Never-exceed speed.

17. Which V-speed represents maximum landing gear extended speed?

  • A- VLE

  • B- VLO

  • C- VFE

18. If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change occurs?

  • A- 70-foot increase in indicated altitude.

  • B- 70-foot increase in density altitude.

  • C- 700-foot increase in indicated altitude.

19. What is true altitude?

  • A- The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level.

  • B- The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.

  • C- The height above the standard datum plane.

20. What is density altitude?

  • A- The height above the standard datum plane.

  • B- The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.

  • C- The altitude read directly from the altimeter.

21. If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication?

  • A- Altimeter will indicate .15" Hg higher.

  • B- Altimeter will indicate 150 feet higher.

  • C- Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.

22. Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?

  • A- The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation.

  • B- The corrected density altitude of the departure airport.

  • C- The corrected pressure altitude for the departure airport.

23. Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates

  • A- Calibrated altitude at field elevation.

  • B- Absolute altitude at field elevation.

  • C- True altitude at field elevation.

24. The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?

  • A- Altimeter.

  • B- Vertical-speed indicator.

  • C- Airspeed indicator.

25. In the Northern Hemisphere, the magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south when:

  • A- A left turn is entered from an east heading.

  • B- A right turn is entered from a west heading.

  • C- The aircraft is decelerated while on a west heading.

26. How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?

  • A- Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.

  • B- Higher temperatures expand the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is higher than true altitude.

  • C- Lower temperatures lower the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.

27. The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is:

  • A- Magnetic deviation.

  • B- Magnetic variation.

  • C- Compass acceleration error.

28. What is pressure altitude?

  • A- The indicated altitude corrected for position and installation error.

  • B- The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92.

  • C- The indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure.

29. In the Northern Hemisphere, if an aircraft is accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic compass will normally indicate

  • A- A turn momentarily.

  • B- Correctly when on a north or south heading.

  • C- A turn toward the south.

30. Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?

  • A- At sea level, when the temperature is 0°F.

  • B- When the altimeter has no installation error.

  • C- At standard temperature.

31. In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the east if:

  • A- An aircraft is decelerated while on a south heading.

  • B- An aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading.

  • C- A left turn is entered from a north heading.

32. Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the:

  • A- Presence of flaws in the permanent magnets of the compass.

  • B- Difference in the location between true north and magnetic north.

  • C- Magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force.

33. Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?

  • A- When the atmospheric pressure is 29.92" Hg.

  • B- When standard atmospheric conditions exist.

  • C- When indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude.

34. After takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period of time?

  • A- VY.

  • B- VX.

  • C- VA.

35. At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92, when climbing to cruising flight level?

  • A- 14,500 feet MSL.

  • B- 18,000 feet MSL.

  • C- 24,000 feet MSL.

36. In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if:

  • A- A left turn is entered from a north heading.

  • B- A right turn is entered from a north heading.

  • C- An aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading.

37. Which instrument will become inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged?

  • A- Altimeter.

  • B- Vertical speed.

  • C- Airspeed.

38. Which V-speed represents maximum flap extended speed?

  • A- VFE.

  • B- VLOF.

  • C- VFC.

39. Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff?

  • A- VY.

  • B- VA.

  • C- VX.

40. In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if:

  • A- An aircraft is decelerated while on an east or west heading.

  • B- A left turn is entered from a west heading.

  • C- An aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading.

41. Which instrument(s) will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged?

  • A- Airspeed only.

  • B- Altimeter and vertical speed.

  • C- Airspeed, altimeter, and vertical speed.

42. (Refer to Figure 3.) Altimeter 1 indicates:

  • A- 500 feet.

  • B- 1,500 feet.

  • C- 10,500 feet.

43. (Refer to Figure 3.) Altimeter 3 indicates:

  • A- 9,500 feet.

  • B- 10,950 feet.

  • C- 15,940 feet.

44. (Refer to Figure 3.) Which altimeter(s) indicate(s) more than 10,000 feet?

  • A- 1, 2, and 3.

  • B- 1 and 2 only.

  • C- 1 only.

45. (Refer to Figure 3.) Altimeter 2 indicates:

  • A- 1,500 feet.

  • B- 4,500 feet.

  • C- 14,500 feet.

Fig 12.png

Fig 3.

46. (Refer to Figure 4.) Which marking identifies the never-exceed speed?

  • A- Upper limit of the green arc.

  • B- Upper limit of the white arc.

  • C- The red radial line.

47. (Refer to Figure 4.) The maximum speed at which the airplane can be operated in smooth air is:

  • A- 100 knots.

  • B- 165 knots.

  • C- 208 knots.

48. (Refer to Figure 4.) Which color identifies the normal flap operating range?

  • A- The yellow arc.

  • B- The green arc.

  • C- The white arc.

49. (Refer to Figure 4.) What is the maximum structural cruising speed?

  • A- 100 knots.

  • B- 165 knots.

  • C- 208 knots.

50. (Refer to Figure 4.) Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed with wing flaps and landing gear in the landing configuration?

  • A- Upper limit of the green arc.

  • B- Upper limit of the white arc.

  • C- Lower limit of the white arc.

51. (Refer to Figure 4.) What is the maximum flaps-extended speed?

  • A- 65 knots.

  • B- 100 knots.

  • C- 165 knots.

52. (Refer to Figure 4.) What is the full flap operating range for the airplane?

  • A- 55 to 100 knots.

  • B- 55 to 208 knots.

  • C- 55 to 165 knots.

53. (Refer to Figure 4.) What is the caution range of the airplane?

  • A- 0 to 60 knots.

  • B- 100 to 165 knots.

  • C- 165 to 208 knots.

54. (Refer to Figure 4.) Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed in a specified configuration?

  • A- Upper limit of the green arc.

  • B- Upper limit of the white arc.

  • C- Lower limit of the green arc.

Fig 13.png

Fig 4.

55. (Refer to Figure 7.) The proper adjustment to make on the attitude indicator during level flight is to align the:

  • A- Horizon bar to the level-flight indication.

  • B- Horizon bar to the miniature airplane.

  • C- Miniature airplane to the horizon bar.

56. (Refer to Figure 7.) How should a pilot determine the direction of bank from an attitude indicator such as the one illustrated?

  • A- By the direction of deflection of the banking scale (A).

  • B- By the direction of deflection of the horizon bar (B).

  • C- By the relationship of the miniature airplane (C) to the deflected horizon bar (B).

Fig 14.png

Fig 7.

57. (Refer to Figure 5.) A turn coordinator provides an indication of the:

  • A- Movement of the aircraft about the yaw and roll axis.

  • B- Angle of bank up to but not exceeding 30°.

  • C- Attitude of the aircraft with reference to the longitudinal axis.

Fig 15.png

Fig 5.

58. (Refer to Figure 6.) To receive accurate indications during flight from a heading indicator, the instrument must be:

  • A- Set prior to flight on a known heading.

  • B- Calibrated on a compass rose at regular intervals.

  • C- Periodically realigned with the magnetic compass as the gyro precesses.

Fig 16.png

Fig 6.

59. (Refer to Figure 82.) Altimeter 1 is indicating a VFR cruising altitude for which direction?

  • A- 180-359 degrees magnetic.

  • B- 179 degrees true.

  • C- 080 degrees magnetic.

60. (Refer to Figure 82.) Altimeter 3 is indicating a VFR cruising altitude for which direction?

  • A- 180-359 degrees magnetic.

  • B- 179 degrees true.

  • C- 080 degrees magnetic.

Fig 17.png

Fig 82.

WRITTEN TEST ANSWERS

1. C- Maneuvering speed.

2. A- Stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration.

3. C- Maximum structural cruising speed.

4. B- When at sea level under standard conditions.

5. A- Only in straight-and-level unaccelerated flight.

6. B- The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.

7. B- The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.

8. A- In colder than standard air temperature.

9. C- Air temperature warmer than standard.

10. A- VA.

11. B- Higher than the actual altitude above sea level

12. B- The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.

13. C- Lower than the actual altitude above sea level.

14. B- The elevation of the departure area.

15. B- Certain metals and electrical systems within the aircraft.

16. C- Never-exceed speed.

17. A- VLE.

18. C- 700-foot increase in indicated altitude.

19. A- The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level.

20. B- The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.

21. C- Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.

22. A- The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation.

23. C- True altitude at field elevation.

24. C- Airspeed indicator.

25. A- The aircraft is decelerated while on a west heading.

26. A- Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.

27. B- Magnetic variation.

28. B- The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92.

29. B- Correctly when on a north or south heading.

30. C- At standard temperature.

31. C- A left turn is entered from a north heading.

32. C- Magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force.

33. B- When standard atmospheric conditions exist.

34. A- VY.

35. B- 18,000 feet MSL.

36. B- A right turn is entered from a north heading.

37. C- Airspeed.

38. A- VFE.

39. C- VX.

40. C- An aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading.

41. C- Airspeed, altimeter, and vertical speed.

42. C- 10,500 feet.

43. A- 9,500 feet.

44. B- 1 and 2 only.

45. B- 14,500 feet.

46. C- The red radial line.

47. C- 208 knots.

48. C- The white arc.

49. B- 165 knots.

50. C- Lower limit of the white arc.

51. B- 100 knots.

52. A- 55 to 100 knots.

53. C- 165 to 208 knots.

54. C- Lower limit of the green arc.

55. C- Miniature airplane to the horizon bar.

56. C- By the relationship of the miniature airplane (C) to the deflected horizon bar (B).

57. A- Movement of the aircraft about the yaw and roll axis.

58. C- Periodically realigned with the magnetic compass as the gyro precesses.

59. A- 180-359 degrees magnetic.

60. C- 080 degrees magnetic.

Regulations

 

Oral Test

1. What does the acronym FAA mean?

2. What does the acronym FAR mean?

3. What is the NTSB?

4. What is an FSDO?

5. What type of flights is limited to who owns a STUDENT PILOT CERTIFICATE?

6. What privileges does the holder of the PRIVATE PILOT license have?

7. What privileges does the holder of the COMMERCIAL PILOT license have?

8. What privileges does the holder of the ATP - AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT license have?

9. For how long is a Pilot's license valid?

10. What are the Aircraft Categories?

11. What are the Aircraft Classes?

12. What are the TYPE - Type of Aircraft?

13. What is required to fly as a PIC in IFR - Instrument Flight Rules conditions?

14. What are the types of Medical Licenses MEDICAL CERTIFICATES?

15. When operating under BasicMed, what limitations do Pilots have?

16. When does a third class medical certificate expire?

17. When does a second class medical certificate expire?

18. When does a first class medical certificate expire?

19. What is a FLIGHT REVIEW, and how often must it be done to act as a PIC?

20. If the pilot performs a proficiency check (such as for a certificate or a new rating), does it count for FLIGHT REVIEW?

21. What CURRENCY is required to act as a PIC for an aircraft carrying passengers?

22. Are TAG (Touch and Go) landings acceptable to act as a PIC for an aircraft carrying passengers?

23. What FLIGHT REVIEW is required if it is to act as a PIC and the passengers are to be transported during the period between 1 hour after sunset and 1 hour before sunrise?

24. What are the HIGH PERFORMANCE aircraft and what FLIGHT REVIEW is required to fly as PIC on these aircraft?

25. What FLIGHT REVIEW is required to act as a PIC in GLIDER TOWING operations?

26. What should a pilot do if his permanent mailing address changes?

27. What is the responsibility and authority of a PIC?

28. What information should a PIC investigate before each flight?

29. What are the regulations for the use of seat belts?

30. Regarding Alcohol and Drugs, under what conditions can no person act as a member of a crew?

31. What are the consequences of a conviction for the violation of any law related to drugs or alcohol?

32. What obligation does a Pilot have if a conviction is imposed for the violation of any law related to drugs or alcohol? 33. In which cases is the use of parachutes mandatory in flight?

34. What is an ATC authorization, in which cases the PIC can deviate from the authorization

35. How does the right of way apply if an aircraft is in distress or emergency?

36. How does the right of way apply to two converging aircraft of the same category?

37. How does the right of way apply to an aircraft towing or refueling another aircraft?

38. How does the right of way apply to two aircraft approaching head-on?

39. How does the right of way apply to an aircraft that reaches another at the same altitude?

40. How does the right of way apply to two or more aircraft approaching an airport to land?

41. What is the minimum safe altitude during takeoff and landing?

42. What is the minimum safe altitude during the flight?

43. What is the minimum safe altitude when flying over congested areas?

44. ​​What is the minimum safe altitude when flying over areas that are not congested?

45. What does the acronym VFR stand for?

46. What does the term "Ceiling" or "Ceiling" mean in Aeronautical Meteorology?

47. Meteorologically speaking, what does the term octas de ceiling mean?

48. How is the amount of sky covered by clouds stated in the Metar?

49. What are the weather minima when operating within the limits? sides of the surface area of ​​Class B, C, D or E airspace designated for An airport?

50. What does the term Special VFR or SVFR mean?

51. What are the meteorological minima on Special VFR or SVFR flights?

52. Can Special VFR or SVFR flights be made at night?

53. Who is the SVFR authorization requested from?

54. What are the flight altitudes in VFR according to magnetic heading? (Semicircular Levels)

55. Flight altitudes in VFR according to magnetic heading or semi-circular levels apply when flying at what altitudes?

56. In which "categories" is it prohibited to transport people or goods in exchange for a fee? compensation or rent.

57. What regulations exist regarding formation flights?

58. Which aircraft cannot perform formation flights?

59. What regulations exist regarding the Drpping of objects from aircraft?

60. Is it mandatory to fill out a flight plan on VFR flights?

61. If a VFR flight plan was completed, what should the PIC do when landing?

62. What is the speed limit at or above 10,000 feet?

63. What is the speed limit below 10,000 feet?

64. What is the speed limit within Class B airspace?

65. What is the speed limit in a VFR corridor through Class B space?

66. What is the speed limit within Class D airspace?

67. Unless authorized or required by ATC, what is the speed limit below 2,500 over the AGL (Above Ground Level)?

68. What is the speed limit within 4 NM from the main airport of a Class C or Class D airspace area?

69. The airworthiness certificate of an aircraft that is valid for you?

70. What documents must go on board the aircraft?

71. Where are the Aircraft Operating Limitations?

72. Who is responsible for keeping the aircraft in an airworthy condition?

73. Who is responsible for keeping records of maintenance, repairs and alterations of the aircraft?

74. Who is responsible for determining that the aircraft is airworthy before the flight?

75. Can a pilot perform maintenance on the plane?

76. Who is responsible for the annual and every 100 hour inspections of the aircraft?

77. How often should an inspection be carried out on the aircraft?

78. How often should an inspection be carried out on an aircraft that is used to transport passengers

79. How often should the Transponder (radar transponder) be inspected?

80. If an aircraft received a major repair or was rebuilt or altered in any way, can it be operated?

81. What are NOTAM “Notices to Airmen”?

82. What are the NOTAM categories?

83. What is a TFR - Temporary Flight Restriction?

84. What is meant by Accident?

85. Who should be notified if an accident occurs?

86. What actions should the operator of an aircraft involved in an accident or incident take?

87. What are Controlled Airspace “Controlled Airspace?

88. What is the Class A airspace?

89. What type of Flight Rules must be carried out in Class A airspace?

90. What is the Class B Airspace?

91. What type of Flight Rules must be carried out in Class B airspace?

92. What is the Class C Airspace?

93. What type of Flight Rules must be carried out in Class C airspace?

94. What is the Class D airspace?

95. What type of Flight Rules must be carried out in Class D airspace?

96. What is the Class E Airspace?

97. What type of Flight Rules must be carried out in Class E airspace?

98. What are “Uncontrolled Airspace”?

99. What are the types of special use airspace "Special Use Airspace"?

100. What is a Prohibited Area?

101. What is a Restricted area?

102. What type is a Warning Area?

103. What is a MOA - Military Operation Area?

104. What is an Alert Area?

105. What is a Controlled Firing Area - CFA Controlled Firing Areas?

106. VFR meteorological minima Class A airspace?

107. VFR meteorological minima Class B airspace?

108. VFR meteorological minima Class C and D airspace?

109. VFR meteorological minima Class E airspace?

110. VFR meteorological minima Class G airspace?

111. What is a Special VFR. FAR 91.155?

112. Up to what maximum altitude can an SVFR be carried out?

113. What is required to fly Special VFR. FAR 91.155?

114. How should the aircraft be equipped for VFR flights during the day?

115. What additional equipment is required on the aircraft for VFR flights at Night?

Written Test

1. FAA Advisory Circulars (some free, others at cost) are available to all pilots and are obtained by

  • A- distribution from the nearest FAA district office.

  • B- ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office.

  • C- subscribing to the Federal Register.

2. No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding

  • A- 6 calendar months.

  • B- 12 calendar months.

  • C- 24 calendar months.

3. The definition of nighttime is

  • A- sunset to sunrise.

  • B- 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.

  • C- the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.

4. When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is

  • A- 180 knots.

  • B- 200 knots.

  • C- 250 knots.

5. Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?

  • A- Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries.

  • B- Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.

  • C- Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures.

6. Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?

  • A- An inflight generator/alternator failure.

  • B- An inflight fire.

  • C- An inflight loss of VOR receiver capability.

7. With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during

  • A- taxi, takeoffs, and landings.

  • B- all flight conditions.

  • C- flight in turbulent air.

8. When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance?

  • A- Within 48 hours if requested by ATC.

  • B- Immediately.

  • C- Within 7 days.

9. To act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 24 months

  • A- at least three flights as observer in a glider being towed by an aircraft.

  • B- at least three flights in a powered glider.

  • C- at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot.

10. What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on?

  • A- The faster aircraft shall give way.

  • B- The aircraft on the left shall give way.

  • C- Each aircraft shall give way to the right.

11. If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified

  • A- immediately.

  • B- within 48 hours.

  • C- within 7 days.

12. Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics, it must be flight tested by an appropriately-rated pilot who holds at least a

  • A- Commercial Pilot Certificate with an Instrument Rating.

  • B- Private Pilot Certificate.

  • C- Commercial Pilot Certificate and a mechanic's certificate.

13. What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot-in-command of an aircraft?

  • A- Certificates showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current flight review.

  • B- A pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment of an annual flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of experience.

  • C- An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required.

14. Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 135°?

  • A- Even thousandths.

  • B- Even thousandths plus 500 feet.

  • C- Odd thousandths plus 500 feet.

15. With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute?

  • A- When a door is removed from the aircraft to facilitate parachute jumpers.

  • B- When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30° or more.

  • C- When intentionally banking in excess of 30°.

16. A Third Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 51-year-old pilot on May 3, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on

  • A- May 3, 1 year later.

  • B- May 31, 1 year later.

  • C- May 31, 2 years later.

17. How long does the airworthiness certificate of an aircraft remain valid?

  • A- As long as the aircraft has a current registration certificate.

  • B- Indefinitely, unless the aircraft suffers major damage.

  • C- As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations.

18.  To act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category, class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding

  • A- 90 days.

  • B- 12 calendar months.

  • C- 24 calendar months.

19. Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2014. The next inspection will be due no later than

  • A- September 30, 2015.

  • B- September 1, 2016.

  • C- September 30, 2016.

20. Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?

  • A- A certificated aircraft mechanic.

  • B- The pilot-in-command.

  • C- The owner or operator.

21. A certificated private pilot may not act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilot's logbook a minimum of

  • A- 100 hours of pilot flight time in any aircraft, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.

  • B- 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.

  • C- 200 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.

22. An ATC clearance provides

  • A- priority over all other traffic.

  • B- adequate separation from all traffic.

  • C- authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.

23. What is the definition of a high-performance airplane?

  • A- An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower.

  • B- An airplane with 180 horsepower, or retractable landing gear, flaps, and a fixed-pitch propeller.

  • C- An airplane with a normal cruise speed in excess of 200 knots.

24. In addition to a valid airworthiness certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight?

  • A- Aircraft engine and airframe logbooks, and owner's manual.

  • B- Radio operator's permit, and repair and alteration forms.

  • C- Operating limitations and registration certificate.

25. What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace?

  • Automated Flight Service Station.

  • B- Air traffic control tower.

  • C- Air Route Traffic Control Center.

26. To act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding

  • A-  6 calendar months.

  • B- 12 calendar months.

  • C- 24 calendar months.

27. Where may an aircraft`s operating limitations be found if the aircraft has an experimental or special light-sport airworthiness certificate?

  • A- Attached to the Airworthiness Certificate.

  • B- In the current, FAA-approved flight manual.

  • C- In the aircraft airframe and engine logbooks.

28. A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing courses. If the motorboat is to the left of the seaplane, which has the right-of-way?

  • A- The motorboat.

  • B- The seaplane.

  • C- Both should alter course to the right.

29. The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the

  • A- pilot-in-command.

  • B- owner or operator.

  • C- mechanic who performs the work.

30. Before a person holding a Private Pilot Certificate may act as pilot-in-command of a high-performance airplane, that person must have

  • A- passed a flight test in that airplane from an FAA inspector.

  • B- an endorsement in that person's logbook that he or she is competent to act as pilot-in-command.

  • C- received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook.

31. The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot-in-command at night must be done during the time period from

  • A- sunset to sunrise.

  • B- 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.

  • C- the end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.

32. For private pilot operations, a Second-Class Medical Certificate issued to a 42-year-old pilot on July 15, this year, will expire at midnight on

  • A- July 15, 2 years later.

  • B- July 31, 1 year later.

  • C- July 31, 2 years later.

33. With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot-in-command have concerning the use of safety belts?

  • A- The pilot-in-command must instruct the passengers to keep their safety belts fastened for the entire flight.

  • B- The pilot-in-command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing.

  • C- The pilot-in-command has no obligation in regard to passengers' use of safety belts.

34. Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?

  • A- 200 knots.

  • B- 250 knots.

  • C- 288 knots.

35. Each recreational or private pilot is required to have

  • A- a biennial flight review.

  • B- an annual flight review.

  • C- a semiannual flight review.

36. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure?

  • A- 500 feet.

  • B- 700 feet.

  • C- 1,000 feet.

37. How should a VFR flight plan be closed at the completion of the flight at a controlled airport?

  • A- The tower will automatically close the flight plan when the aircraft turns off the runway.

  • B- The pilot must close the flight plan with the FAA upon landing.

  • C- The tower will relay the instructions to the nearest FSS when the aircraft contacts the tower for landing.

38. If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required?

  • A- August 8, 2 years later.

  • B- August 31, next year.

  • C- August 31, 2 years later.

39. The airworthiness of an aircraft can be determined by a preflight inspection and a

  • A- statement from the owner or operator that the aircraft is airworthy.

  • B- log book endorsement from a flight instructor.

  • C- review of the maintenance records.

40. The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is

  • A- remain clear of clouds.

  • B- 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.

  • C- 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally.

41. FAA Advisory Circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number?

  • A- 60

  • B- 70

  • C- 90

42. Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft?

  • A- Only in an emergency.

  • B- If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface.

  • C- If prior permission is received from the FAA.

43. As pilot-in-command of an aircraft, under which situation can you deviate from an ATC clearance?

  • A- When operating in Class A airspace at night.

  • B- If an ATC clearance is not understood and in VFR conditions.

  • C- In response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory.

44. Which VFR cruising altitude is acceptable for a flight on a victor airway with a magnetic course of 175°? The terrain is less than 1,000 feet.

  • A- 4,500 feet.

  • B- 5,000 feet.

  • C- 5,500 feet.

45. During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is

  • A- 1 mile.

  • B- 3 miles.

  • C- 5 miles.

46. A Third Class Medical Certificate was issued to a 19-year-old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Recreational or Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will expire at midnight on

  • A- August 10, 2 years later.

  • B- August 31, 5 years later.

  • C- August 31, 2 years later.

47. What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority?

  • A- Take no special action since you are pilot in command.

  • B- File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested.

  • C- File a report to the FAA Administrator, as soon as possible.

48. A 100-hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?

  • A- 3312.5 hours.

  • B- 3402.5 hours.

  • C- 3395.5 hours.

49. Which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate when flying above 3,000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 185°?

  • A- 4,000 feet.

  • B- 4,500 feet.

  • C- 5,000 feet.

50. For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is

  • A- 1,000 feet.

  • B- 2,000 feet.

  • C- 1 mile.

51. Preventive maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required?

  • A- A full, detailed description of the work done must be entered in the airframe logbook.

  • B- The date the work was completed, and the name of the person who did the work must be entered in the airframe and engine logbook.

  • C- The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.

52. Your cousin wants you to take him flying. You must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in your aircraft within the preceding

  • A- 90 days.

  • B- 60 days.

  • C- 30 days.

53. With respect to the certification of airmen, which are classes of aircraft?

  • A- Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.

  • B- Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.

  • C- Lighter-than-air, airship, hot air balloon, gas balloon.

54. When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is

  • A- 200 knots.

  • B- 230 knots.

  • C- 250 knots.

55. Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during

  • A- takeoffs and landings.

  • B- all flight conditions.

  • C- flight in turbulent air.

56. No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with

  • A- .008 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

  • B- .004 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

  • C- .04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

57. Completion of an annual condition inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by

  • A- the relicensing date on the registration certificate.

  • B- an appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance records.

  • C- an inspection sticker placed on the instrument panel that lists the annual inspection completion date.

58. In regard to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may

  • A- not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.

  • B- act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying a passenger for compensation if the flight is in connection with a business or employment.

  • C- not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight.

59. According to regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may

  • A- be paid for the operating expenses of a flight if at least three takeoffs and three landings were made by the pilot within the preceding 90 days.

  • B- not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight.

  • C- not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.

60. When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot's personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?

  • A- When acting as a crew chief during launch and recovery.

  • B- Only when passengers are carried.

  • C- Anytime when acting as pilot-in-command or as a required crewmember.

61. When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator?

  • A- Within 7 days.

  • B- Within 10 days.

  • C- Upon request.

62. What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under Special VFR in Class D airspace at night?

  • A- The airplane must be under radar surveillance at all times while in Class D airspace.

  • B- The airplane must be equipped for IFR with an altitude reporting transponder.

  • C- The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped.

63. How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division?

  • A- No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.

  • B- No later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action.

  • C- Required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate.

64. If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft's operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated

  • A- by any private pilot.

  • B- with passengers aboard.

  • C- for compensation or hire.

65. During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is

  • A- 500 feet.

  • B- 1,000 feet.

  • C- 1,500 feet.

66. Which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable Airworthiness Directive?

  • A- Aircraft maintenance records.

  • B- Airworthiness Certificate and Pilot's Operating Handbook.

  • C- Airworthiness and Registration Certificates.

67. What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?

  • A- 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.

  • B- 1 mile visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal clearance from clouds.

  • C- 3 miles visibility and clear of clouds.

68. During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is

  • A- 1,000 feet.

  • B- 1,500 feet.

  • C- 2,000 feet.

69. The pilot-in-command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft?

  • A- Aircraft operated under an authorization issued by the Administrator.

  • B- Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds.

  • C- Aircraft involved in ferry flights, training flights, or test flights.

70. An approved chair-type parachute may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding

  • A- 120 days.

  • B- 180 days.

  • C- 365 days.

71. In order to act as pilot-in-command of a high-performance airplane, a pilot must have

  • A- made and logged three solo takeoffs and landings in a high-performance airplane.

  • B- passed a flight test in a high-performance airplane.

  • C- received and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower.

72. The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the

  • A- Federal Aviation Administration.

  • B- pilot-in-command.

  • C- aircraft manufacturer.

73. Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found?

  • A- On the airworthiness certificate.

  • B- In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.

  • C- In the aircraft airframe and engine logbooks.

74. No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the

  • A- flight visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.

  • B- ground visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.

  • C- ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles.

75. Who is responsible for ensuring Airworthiness Directives (ADs) are complied with?

  • A- Owner or operator.

  • B- Repair station.

  • C- Mechanic with inspection authorization (IA).

76. If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is

  • A- 1829

  • B- 1859

  • C- 1929

77. With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?

  • A- Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.

  • B- Normal, utility, acrobatic, limited.

  • C- Transport, restricted, provisional.

78. With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?

  • A- Normal, utility, acrobatic.

  • B- Airplane, rotorcraft, glider.

  • C- Landplane, seaplane.

79. Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of any

  • A- authorized representative of the Department of Transportation.

  • B- person in a position of authority.

  • C- local law enforcement officer.

80. What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (ADs)?

  • A- For Informational purposes only.

  • B- They are mandatory.

  • C- They are voluntary.

81. To meet the recency of experience requirements to act as pilot-in-command carrying passengers at night, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days in

  • A- the same category and class of aircraft to be used.

  • B- the same type of aircraft to be used.

  • C- any aircraft.

82. VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of

  • A- 3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace.

  • B- 5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds at all altitudes.

  • C- 5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds only in Class A airspace.

83. Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when?

  • A- Pilots only, during takeoffs and landings.

  • B- Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only.

  • C- Each person on board the aircraft during the entire flight.

84. What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?

  • A- Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions.

  • B- Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

  • C- Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

85. An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane's position, which aircraft has the right-of-way?

  • A- The airship.

  • B- The airplane.

  • C- Each pilot should alter course to the right.

86. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft

  • A- that has the other to its right.

  • B- that is the least maneuverable.

  • C- at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another.

87. May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an Airworthiness Directive (AD)?

  • A- Yes, under VFR conditions only.

  • B- Yes, ADs are only voluntary.

  • C- Yes, if allowed by the AD.

88. To determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, a person should refer to the

  • A- airworthiness certificate.

  • B- registration certificate.

  • C- aircraft maintenance records.

89. Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft?

  • A- Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft?

  • B- Flight over a densely populated area.

  • C- Flight within Class D airspace.

90. FAA Advisory Circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic Control and General Operations are issued under which subject number?

  • A- 60

  • B- 70

  • C- 90

91. Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is

  • A- 200 knots.

  • B- 230 knots.

  • C- 250 knots.

92. Which incident requires an immediate notification be made to the nearest NTSB field office?

  • A- An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident.

  • B- An inflight radio communications failure.

  • C- An inflight generator or alternator failure.

93. Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance?

  • A- Replenishing hydraulic fluid.

  • B- Repair of portions of skin sheets by making additional seams.

  • C- Repair of landing gear brace struts.

94. What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane?

  • A- Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions.

  • B- Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

  • C- Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

95. What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction?

  • A- Annual condition and 100-hour inspections.

  • B- Biannual condition and 100-hour inspections.

  • C- Annual condition and 50-hour inspections.

96. Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crewmembers are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened?

  • A- Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.

  • B- Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing and while en route.

  • C- Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.

97. Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?

  • A- Glider.

  • B- Airship.

  • C- Aircraft refueling other aircraft.

98. No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace at night under Special VFR unless the

  • A- flight can be conducted 500 feet below the clouds.

  • B- airplane is equipped for instrument flight.

  • C- flight visibility is at least 3 miles.

99. If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot-in-command may

  • A- deviate from any rule of 14 CFR Part 91 to the extent required to meet the emergency, but must submit a written report to the Administrator within 24 hours.

  • B- deviate from any rule of 14 CFR Part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency.

  • C- not deviate from any rule of 14 CFR Part 91 unless prior to the deviation approval is granted by the Administrator.

100. The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the

  • A- owner or operator.

  • B- pilot-in-command.

  • C- mechanic who performed the work.

101. Who may perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for return to service?

  • A- Student or recreational pilot.

  • B- Private or commercial pilot.

  • C- None of the above.

102. No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight

  • A- over a densely populated area.

  • B- in Class D airspace.

  • C- except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.

103. Each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising altitude shall maintain an odd-thousand plus 500-foot altitude while on a

  • A- magnetic heading of 0° through 179°.

  • B- magnetic course of 0° through 179°.

  • C- true course of 0° through 179°.

104. Who is responsible for ensuring appropriate entries are made in maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service?

  • A- Owner or operator.

  • B- Certified mechanic.

  • C- Repair station.

105. In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot-in-command to

  • A- review traffic control light signal procedures.

  • B- check the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the emergency locator transmitter (ELT).

  • C- determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.

106. A Third Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 36-year-old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on

  • A- August 10, 3 years later.

  • B- August 31, 5 years later.

  • C- August 31, 3 years later.

107. During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is

  • A- 500 feet.

  • B- 1,000 feet.

  • C- 1,500 feet.

108. Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?

  • A- Gyroplane.

  • B- Airship.

  • C- Aircraft towing other aircraft.

109. For private pilot operations, a First Class Medical Certificate issued to a 23-year-old pilot on October 21, this year, will expire at midnight on

  • A- October 21, 2 years later.

  • B- October 31, next year.

  • C- October 31, 5 years later.

110. Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include

  • A- the designation of an alternate airport.

  • B- a study of arrival procedures at airports/ heliports of intended use.

  • C- an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.

111. With respect to the certification of airmen, which are categories of aircraft?

  • A- Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon.

  • B- Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.

  • C- Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.

112. To maintain BasicMed privileges you are required to complete the comprehensive medical examination checklist (CMEC) every

  • A- 48 months.

  • B- 24 months.

  • C- 12 months.

113. Pre-takeoff briefing of passengers about the use of seat belts for a flight is the responsibility of

  • A- all passengers.

  • B- the pilot-in-command.

  • C- the right seat pilot.

114. If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only

  • A- 30 days after the date of the move.

  • B- 60 days after the date of the move.

  • C- 90 days after the date of the move.

115. The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are

  • A- 500-foot ceiling and 1 mile visibility.

  • B- 1,000-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility.

  • C- clear of clouds and 2 miles visibility.

116. When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot-in-command may deviate from that clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is

  • A- when the clearance states 'at pilot's discretion.'

  • B- an emergency.

  • C- if the clearance contains a restriction.

117. An aircraft had a 100-hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?

  • A- 1349.6 hours.

  • B- 1359.6 hours.

  • C- 1369.6 hours.

118. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?

  • A- An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

  • B- An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

  • C- An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.

119. Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic?

  • A- A balloon.

  • B- An aircraft in distress.

  • C- An aircraft on final approach to land.

120. What is the minimum weather condition required for airplanes operating under Special VFR in Class D airspace?

  • A- 1 mile flight visibility.

  • B- 1 mile flight visibility and 1,000-foot ceiling.

  • C- 3 miles flight visibility and 1,000-foot ceiling.

121. Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?

  • A- A forced landing due to engine failure.

  • B- Landing gear damage due to a hard landing.

  • C- Flight control system malfunction or failure.

122. Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft?

  • A- In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care.

  • B- Only if the person does not have access to the cockpit or pilot's compartment.

  • C- Under no condition.

123. To operate under BasicMed the pilot-in-command must have completed a physical examination by a state-licensed physician within the preceding

  • A- 48 months.

  • B- 24 months.

  • C- 12 months.

124. The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB

  • A- within 7 days.

  • B- within 10 days.

  • C- when requested.

125. For private pilot operations under BasicMed, the pilot-in-command is allowed to fly with no more than

  • A- six passengers.

  • B- five passengers.

  • C- five occupants.

126. What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course?

  • A- The airplane pilot should give way to the left.

  • B- The glider pilot should give way to the right.

  • C- Both pilots should give way to the right.

127. What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight?

  • A- If the passengers pay all the operating expenses.

  • B- If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight.

  • C- There is no exception.

128. Unless otherwise specifically authorized, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate

  • A- beneath the floor of Class B airspace.

  • B- over a densely populated area or in a congested airway.

  • C- from the primary airport within Class D airspace.

129. While on a VFR cross-country and not in contact with ATC, what frequency would you use in the event of an emergency?

  • A- 121.5 MHz.

  • B- 122.5 MHz.

  • C- 128.725 MHz.

130. During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is

  • A- 500 feet.

  • B- 1,000 feet.

  • C- 1,500 feet.

131. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?

  • A- An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

  • B- An altitude of 500 feet above the surface and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

  • C- An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.

132. A Special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is

  • A- less than 1 mile and the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet.

  • B- at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.

  • C- at least 3 miles and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.

133. The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is

  • A- 1 mile.

  • B- 3 miles.

  • C- 5 miles.

134. FAA Advisory Circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number?

  • A- 60

  • B- 70

  • C- 90

135. The takeoffs and landings required to meet the recency of experience requirements for carrying passengers in a tailwheel airplane

  • A- may be touch and go or full stop.

  • B- must be touch and go.

  • C- must be to a full stop.

136. During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for day VFR flight is

  • A- 1 mile.

  • B- 3 miles.

  • C- 5 miles.

137. A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding

  • A- 8 hours.

  • B- 12 hours.

  • C- 24 hours.

138. What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?

  • A- 1 mile.

  • B- 3 miles.

  • C- 4 miles.

139. The pilot of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an NTSB accident report within how many days?

  • A- 5

  • B- 7

  • C- 10

140. What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance?

  • A- 14 CFR §91.403.

  • B- 14 CFR §43.7.

  • C- 14 CFR §61.113.

141. May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody?

  • A- Yes, but only if moved by a federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.

  • B- Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage.

  • C- No, it may not be moved under any circumstances.

142. An aircraft's annual condition inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than

  • July 1, next year.

  • July 13, next year.

  • July 31, next year.

143. A recreational or private pilot acting as pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember, must have in their personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a current

  • A- logbook endorsement to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished.

  • B- medical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate.

  • C- endorsement on the pilot certificate to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished.

144. To act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same

  • A- make and model.

  • B- category and class, but not type.

  • C- category, class, and type, if a type rating is required.

145. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas?

  • A- An altitude of 1,000 feet above any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

  • B- An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet of the aircraft.

  • C- An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.

146. (Refer to Figure 74.) What minimum pilot certificate is required for a flight departing out of Hayward Executive (area 6)? 

View Figures

  • A- Student Pilot Certificate.     

  • B- Private Pilot Certificate

  • C- Sport Pilot Certificate.

147. (Refer to Figure 26, area 2.) In flight and approaching the Bryn (Pvt) Airstrip the weather minimums are 

View Figures

  • A- 1 statute mile visibility.

  • B- 3 statute miles in all airspace.

  • C- no visibility, remain clear of clouds.

148. (Refer to Figure 26, area 2.) The day VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over the town of Cooperstown, after departing and climbing out of the Cooperstown Airport at or below 700 feet AGL are

View Figures

  • A- 3 miles and clear of clouds.

  • B- 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.

  • C- 1 mile and clear of clouds.

149. (Refer to Figure 22, area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over Sandpoint Airport at 1,200 feet AGL are

View Figures

  • A- 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.

  • B- 1 mile and clear of clouds.

  • C- 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.

150. (Refer to Figure 26, area 2.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are

View Figures

  • A- 1 mile and clear of clouds.

  • B- 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.

  • C- 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.

151. (Refer to Figure 22, area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate at night over Sandpoint Airport at less than 700 feet AGL are

View Figures

  • A- 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.

  • B- 3 miles and clear of clouds.

  • C- 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.

152. (Refer to Figure 78.) What are the basic VFR weather minima required to takeoff from the Onawa (K36) airport during the day?

View Figures

  • A- 3 statute miles visibility, 500 feet below the clouds, 1,000 feet above the clouds and 2,000 feet horizontally from the clouds.

  • B- 0 statute miles, clear of clouds.

  • C- 1 statute mile, clear of clouds.

WRITTEN TEST ANSWERS

1. B- ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office.

2. C- 24 calendar months.

3. C- the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.

4. B- 200 knots.

5. B- Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.

6. B- An inflight fire.

7. B- all flight conditions.

8. A- Within 48 hours if requested by ATC.

9. C- at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot.

10. B- The aircraft on the left shall give way.

11. A- immediately.

12. B- Private Pilot Certificate.

13. C- An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required.

14. C- Odd thousandths plus 500 feet.

15. B- When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30° or more.

16. C- May 31, 2 years later.

17. C- As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations.

18. A- 90 days.

19. C- September 30, 2016.

20. B- The pilot-in-command.

21. B- 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.

22. C- authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.

23. A- An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower.

24. C- Airspeed indicator.

25. B- Air traffic control tower.

26. C- 24 calendar months.

27. A- Attached to the Airworthiness Certificate.

28. B- The seaplane.

29. B- owner or operator.

30. C- received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook.

31. B- 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.

32. C- July 31, 2 years later.

33. B- The pilot-in-command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing.

34. B- 250 knots.

35. A- a biennial flight review.

36. A- 500 feet.

37. B- The pilot must close the flight plan with the FAA upon landing.

38. C- August 31, 2 years later.

39. C- review of the maintenance records.

40. B- 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.

41. B- 70

42. B- If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface.

43. C- In response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory.

44. C- 5,500 feet.

45. B- 3 miles.

46. B- August 31, 5 years later.

47. B- File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested.

48. B- 3402.5 hours.

49. B- 4,500 feet.

50. C- 1 mile.

51. C- The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.

52. A- 90 days.

53. B- Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.

54. A- 200 knots.

55. A- takeoffs and landings.

56. C- .04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

57. B- an appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance records.

58. A- not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.

59. C- not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.

60. C- Anytime when acting as pilot-in-command or as a required crewmember.

61. C- Upon request.

62. C- The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped.

63. A- No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.

64. B- with passengers aboard.

65. B- 1,000 feet.

66. A- Aircraft maintenance records.

67. A- 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.

68. C- 2,000 feet.

69. B- Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds.

70. B- 180 days.

71. C- received and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower..

72. B- pilot-in-command.

73. B- In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.

74. C- ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles.

75. A- Owner or operator.

76. C- 1929

77. A- Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.

78. A- Normal, utility, acrobatic.

79. C- local law enforcement officer.

80. B- They are mandatory.

81. A- the same category and class of aircraft to be used.

82. A- 3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace.

83. B- Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only.

84. C- Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

85. A- The airship.

86. C- at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another.

87. C- Yes, if allowed by the AD.

88. C- aircraft maintenance records.

89. B- Flight over a densely populated area.

90. C- 90

91. A- 200 knots.

92. A- An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident.

93. A- Replenishing hydraulic fluid.

94. B- Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

95. A- Annual condition and 100-hour inspections.

96. C- Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.

97. A- Glider.

98. B- airplane is equipped for instrument flight.

99. B- deviate from any rule of 14 CFR Part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency.

100. A- owner or operator.

101. B- Private or commercial pilot.

102. C- except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.

103. B- magnetic course of 0° through 179°.

104. A- Owner or operator.

105. C- determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.

106. B- August 31, 5 years later.

107. A- 500 feet.

108. C- Aircraft towing other aircraft.

109. C- October 31, 5 years later.

110. C- an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.

111. B- Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.

112. A- 48 months.

113. B- the pilot-in-command.

114. A- 30 days after the date of the move.

115. B- 1,000-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility.

116. B- an emergency.

117. B- 1359.6 hours.

118. B- An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

119. B- An aircraft in distress.

120. A- 1 mile flight visibility.

121. C- Flight control system malfunction or failure.

122. A- In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care.

123. A- 48 months.

124. C- when requested.ed.

125. B- five passengers.

126. C- Both pilots should give way to the right.

127. B- If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight.

128. B- over a densely populated area or in a congested airway.

129. A- 121.5 MHz.

130. B- 1,000 feet.

131. A- An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

132. B- at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.

133. C- 5 miles.

134. A- 60

135. C- must be to a full stop.

136. A- 1 mile

137. A- 8 hours.

138. B- 3 miles.

139. C- 10

140. C- 14 CFR §61.113.

141. B- Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage.

142. C- July 31, next year.

143. B- medical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate.

144. C- category, class, and type, if a type rating is required.

145. C- An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.

146. A- Student Pilot Certificate.  

147. A- 1 statute mile visibility.

148. C- 1 mile and clear of clouds.

149. C- 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.

150. C- 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.

151. A- 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.

152. C- 1 statute mile, clear of clouds.